100-160 exam dumps

100-160 practice question 202 of 265

Cisco Certified Support Technician (CCST) Cybersecurity. Associate level, Cisco. Free question with the correct answer and a full explanation.

100-160 Question 202

Single answer

A small business has discovered a vulnerability in their web application that allows unauthorized users to bypass authentication and access sensitive customer data. The business owner decides to implement multi-factor authentication (MFA) as a way to address this issue. How should this decision be categorized in the risk management process?

  1. A

    Risk Avoidance

  2. B

    Risk Transfer

  3. C

    Risk Mitigation

  4. D

    Risk Acceptance

Show answer and explanation

Correct answer: C

Explanation

Risk Mitigation is a key part of the risk management process where measures are taken to reduce the likelihood or impact of a risk. In this scenario, the business owner is addressing the vulnerability by implementing MFA, which reduces the likelihood of unauthorized access to sensitive data. This clearly categorizes the action as Risk Mitigation.

  • A. Incorrect.

    Risk Avoidance involves eliminating the activity that introduces the risk entirely. Implementing MFA does not remove the web application or the associated risk, so this is incorrect.

  • B. Incorrect.

    Risk Transfer involves shifting the risk to another party, such as through insurance or outsourcing. Implementing MFA does not transfer the risk, so this is incorrect.

  • C. Correct.

    Risk Mitigation involves taking steps to reduce the likelihood or impact of a risk. Implementing MFA reduces the likelihood of unauthorized access by adding an additional security layer, making this the correct choice.

  • D. Incorrect.

    Risk Acceptance involves knowingly accepting the risk without taking action. Since the business owner is actively implementing MFA to address the risk, this is incorrect.

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